
[Jan-2022] NCLEX NCLEX-RN Dumps - Secret To Pass in First Attempt
NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps [2022] Practice Valid Exam Dumps Question
NEW QUESTION 76
A 71-year-old client fell and injured her left leg while cooking in the kitchen. Her husband calls the ambulance, and she is taken to the emergency department at a local hospital. X-ray reports confirm that she has an intertrochanteric fracture of the left femur. Her left leg will require skeletal traction initially and then surgery. The nurse knows that this type of traction will be used:
- A. With weights at both ends of the bed to maintain pull on the upper extremity
- B. By inserting pins to provide steady pull on the bone
- C. To suspend the leg in a sling without pull on the extremity
- D. Intermittently to place a pull over the pelvis and lower spine
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Skeletal traction is the application of traction directly to bone with the use of pins and wires or tongs for the purpose of providing a strong, steady, continuous longitudinal pull on the bone. It is indicated for preoperative immobilization and positioning of hip and femur fractures. (B) A type of skeletal traction (balanced suspension with a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment) uses a sling to support the extremity, but it also uses weights to provide a strong, steady continuouspull on the extremity. A sling is used instead of pins.
(C) Pelvic traction provides an intermittent pull over the pelvis and bone, whereas skeletal traction is continuous. Pelvic traction does not use pins. (D) Skeletal traction uses weights at the end of the bed to provide a continuous pull on long bones. Weights are not applied to both ends of the bed.
NEW QUESTION 77
A 20-year-old male client is being treated for protein deficiency. If he likes all of the following foods, which one would the nurse recommend to increase in the diet?
- A. Rice
- B. Chicken
- C. Cantaloupe
- D. Green beans
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Cantaloupe is a good source of carbohydrates, vitamin C, and vitamin A.
(B) Rice contains about 4 g of protein per 200 g.
(C) Chicken contains 35 g protein per breast. Chicken is a rich source of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), which is needed for adequate protein synthesis. As protein intake increases, vitamin B6 intake must also be increased. Vitamin B6 is a coenzyme in amino acid metabolism.
(D) Green beans only contain 2 g of protein per cup.
NEW QUESTION 78
The parents of a 2-year-old child are ready to begin toilet training activities with him. His parents feel he is ready to train because he is now 2 years old. What would the nurse identify as readiness in this child?
- A. The age at which the child's siblings were trained
- B. The child awakening wet from his naps
- C. Patience by the child when wearing soiled diapers
- D. Communicating the urge to defecate or urinate
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Children experience impatience with soiled diapers when readiness for training is apparent. They often desire to be changed immediately. (B) A child must be able to use verbal or nonverbal skills to communicate needs. (C) A readiness indicator would be awaking dry from naps. (D) The age at which a sibling was toilet trained has no implications for training this child.
NEW QUESTION 79
Following a gastric resection, a 70-year-old client is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit. He was extubated prior to leaving the suite. On arrival at the postanesthesia care unit, the nurse should:
- A. Obtain pulse and blood pressure readings noting rate and quality of pulse
- B. Review physician's orders, administering medications as ordered
- C. Reassure the client that his surgery is over and that he is in the recovery room
- D. Check airway, feeling for amount of air exchange noting rate, depth, and quality of respirations
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Adequate air exchange and tissue oxygenation depend on competent respiratory function. Checking the airway is the nurse's priority action. (B) Obtaining the vital signs is an important action, but it is secondary to airway management. (C) Reorienting a client to time, place, and person after surgery is important, but it is secondary to airway and vital signs. (D) Airway management takes precedence over physician's orders unless they specifically relate to airway management.
NEW QUESTION 80
The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is:
- A. To maintain communication with the family
- B. To maintain nutritional requirements
- C. To establish trust with the child
- D. To promote involvement in school activities
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is establishing a trusting relationship. (B) Maintaining a relationship with the family is important but having the trust of the child is a priority. (C) To promote involvement in school activities is inappropriate for a child who is autistic. (D) Maintaining nutritional requirements is not the primary problem of the autistic child.
NEW QUESTION 81
A male client has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for approximately 30 years. He frequently indulges in highsugar foods and forgets to take his insulin. He has not experienced acute diabetic emergencies over the years but is now beginning to demonstrate symptoms of diabetic peripheral neuropathy. This distresses him because dancing is one of his favorite pastimes. He decides to question his wife's home health nurse about diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The nurse points out his noncompliance to his diabetic diet and insulin regimen.
The client answers the nurse, "It has been my experience that the diabetic diet is very difficult to follow. As far as the insulin, isn't a fellow allowed to forget now and then?" The client's actions and response best demonstrate:
- A. Anger
- B. Denial
- C. Depression
- D. Bargaining
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Depression may be an underlying feature, but it is not evident from limited data presented here. (B) Anger is not exhibited in his response. (C) Denial is evident in the client's actions; through the years, he has had a casual approach to his illness. He only becomes concerned when bodily changes affect his present lifestyle, when in fact he should have been concerned all along. His verbal response also reflects denial. (D) There is no evidence of bargaining in the client's actions or verbal response.
NEW QUESTION 82
A female baby was born with talipes equinovarus. Her mother has requested that the nurse assigned to the baby come to her room to discuss the baby's condition. The nurse knows that the pediatrician has discussed the baby's condition with her mother and that an orthopedist has been consulted but has not yet seen the baby. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Call the orthopedist and request that he come to see the baby now.
- B. Tell the mother that this is not a serious condition.
- C. Tell the mother that this condition has been successfully treated with exercises, casts, and/or braces.
- D. Question the mother and find out what the pediatrician has told her about the baby's condition.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should call the orthopedist after assessing the mother's knowledge. (B) The nurse must first assess the knowledge of the parent before attempting any explanation. (C) The nurse should assess the mother's knowledge of the baby's condition as the first priority. (D) This answer is correct, but the priority is B.
NEW QUESTION 83
Assessment of a client reveals a 30% loss of preillness weight, lanugo, and cessation of menses for 3 months. Her vital signs are BP 90/50, P 96 bpm, respirations 30, and temperature 97 F.
She admits to the nurse that she has induced vomiting 3 times this morning, but she had to continue exercising to lose "just 5 more lb." Her symptoms are consistent with:
- A. Gastritis
- B. Bulimia
- C. Anorexia nervosa
- D. Pregnancy
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Presenting behaviors collectively are inconsistent with depression. (B) A preillness
weight loss of 30%, lanugo, and cessation of menses are inconsistent with bulimia. (C) Symptoms and vital signs do not indicate the presence of infection. (D) All symptoms and vital signs are consistent with anorexia nervosa.
NEW QUESTION 84
A client is in active labor and has been admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The RN has just done a sterile vaginal exam and determines that the client is dilated 5 cm, effaced 85%, and the fetus's head is at 0 station.
She asks if she could have a lumbar epidural now. The epidural is started, and the anesthetic agent used is bupivacaine (Marcaine). After the client has received her lumbar epidural, it is important for the RN to monitor her for which of the following side effects:
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The medication bupivacaine will cause vasodilation in the vascular system, and this does not result in elevation of the ma-ternal blood pressure. (B) The medication bupivacaine will cause vasodilation in the vascular system, and this will result in lowering the maternal blood pressure. (C) Bupivacaine does not interfere with the functioning of the endocrine system. (D) Bupivacaine does not interfere with the functioning of the endocrine system.
NEW QUESTION 85
A gravida 2 para 1 client delivered a full-term newborn 12 hours ago. The nurse finds her uterus to be boggy, high, and deviated to the right. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
- A. Massage the uterus and re-evaluate in 30 minutes
- B. Have the client void and then re-evaluate the fundus
- C. Place the client on a pad count
- D. Notify the physician
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should initiate actions to remove the most frequent cause of uterine displacement, which involves emptying the bladder. Notifying the physician is an inappropriate nursing action. (B) The pad count gives an estimate of blood loss, which is likely to increase with a boggy uterus; but this action does not remove the most frequent cause of uterine displacement, which is a full bladder. (C) Massage may firm the uterus temporarily, but if a full bladder is not emptied, the uterus will remain displaced and is likely to relax again. (D) The most common cause of uterine displacement is a full bladder.
NEW QUESTION 86
Medication is administered to a client who has been placed in restraints after a sudden violent episode, and his EPSs subside. Restraints can be removed when:
- A. The violent behavior subsides, and the client agrees to behave
- B. The physician orders it
- C. The nurse deems that removal of restraints is necessary
- D. A therapeutic alliance has been established, and violent behavior subsides
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The physicianmayorder release of restraints, but prior to that, the client must meet criteria for release.
(B) While the client is still restrained, but after violent behavior has subsided, a therapeutic bridge is built.
This alliance encourages dialogue between nurse and client, allowing the client to determine causative factors, feelings prior to loss of control, and adaptive alternatives to violence. (C) If the client only "agrees to behave" after violent behavior subsides, he has developed no insight into cause and effect of violence or his response to stress. (D)Removal of restraints occurs only when the client meets the criteria for release, not just because the nurse says it is necessary.
NEW QUESTION 87
To facilitate maximum air exchange, the nurse should position the client in:
- A. High Fowler
- B. Orthopneic
- C. Flat-supine
- D. Prone
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The high Fowler position does increase air exchange, but not to the extent of orthopneic position. (B) The orthopneic position is a sitting position that allows maximum lung expansion. (C) The prone position places pressure on diaphragm and does not promote maximum air exchange. (D) The flat-supine position places pressure on diaphragm by abdominal organs and does not promote maximum air exchange.
NEW QUESTION 88
Which of the following medications requires close observation for bronchospasm in the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma?
- A. Verapamil (Isoptin)
- B. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
- C. Propranolol (Inderal)
- D. Amrinone (Inocor)
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Verapamil has the respiratory side effect of nasal or chest congestion, dyspnea, shortness of breath (SOB), and wheezing. (B) Amrinone has the effect of increased contractility and dilation of the vascular smooth muscle. It has no noted respiratory side effects. (C) Epinephrine has the effect of bronchodilation through stimulation. (D) Propranolol, esmolol, and labetalol are all - blocking agents, which can increase airway resistance and cause bronchospasms.
NEW QUESTION 89
A mother came to the pediatric clinic with her 17- month-old child. The mother would like to begin toilet training. What should the nurse teach her about implementing toilet training?
- A. Have a child-sized toilet seat or training potty on hand.
- B. Explain to the child she is going to "void" and "defecate."
- C. Show disapproval if she does not void or defecate.
- D. Take two or three favorite toys with the child.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Giving her toys will distract her and interfere with toilet training because of inappropriate reinforcement.
(B) A child-sized toilet seat or training potty gives a child a feeling of security. (C) She should use words that are age appropriate for the child. (D) Children should be praised for cooperative behavior and/or successful evacuation.
NEW QUESTION 90
A 72-year-old male client had the Foley catheter that was inserted during the transurethral resection of his prostate removed today. He is concerned about the urinary incontinence he is having since removal of the Foley catheter. The nurse explains that:
- A. This is usually temporary
- B. He should not be concerned about it because it will resolve quickly
- C. This is related to the bladder spasms and will soon stop
- D. The nurse will keep him dry, and he should notify the nurse when this happens
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This problem is temporary, but it may take some time to resolve, especially in an older man. (B) This problem is usually temporary, but it may take some time to resolve. (C) Keeping the client dry will not relieve his anxiety about his incontinence. (D) The bladder spasms are not the cause of the client's incontinence.
NEW QUESTION 91
The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:
- A. Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)
- B. Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute, Quinidex)
- C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
- D. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions. (C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression. (D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.
NEW QUESTION 92
The nurse is interviewing a client with a diagnosis of possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following statements will be reflected in the client's chief complaint?
- A. "I don't remember anything in particular, I just haven't felt well."
- B. "I've only been urinating three times a day lately."
- C. "My legs have been numb for three months."
- D. "I've been having a dull pain at the upper left shoulder."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A, B, C) These complaints are not specific signs and symptoms associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm. If symptoms are present, the aneurysm is expanding or rupture is imminent. (D) Many clients may experience no symptoms. The only symptom may be a pulsation noted in the abdomen in the reclining position.
NEW QUESTION 93
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