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NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following encoding techniques replaces unusual ASCII characters with
"%" followed by the character's two-digit ASCII code expressed in hexadecimal?
- A. HTML encoding
- B. URL encoding
- C. Unicode encoding
- D. Base64 encoding
Answer: B
Explanation:
URL encoding, also known as percent-encoding, is a mechanism for encoding information in a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) under certain circumstances. This technique involves replacing unsafe ASCII characters with a "%" followed by two hexadecimal digits that represent the character's ASCII code. This is necessary for embedding characters that are not allowed in URLs directly, such as spaces and symbols, or characters that have special meanings within URLs, ensuring that the URL is correctly interpreted by web browsers and servers.
References:The concept of URL encoding is fundamental to web application security, a topic that is covered in the CREST CPTIA program by EC-Council. Understanding encoding techniques is crucial for incident handlers dealing with web-based attacks and investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Eric who is an incident responder is working on developing incident-handling plans and procedures. As part of this process, he is performing analysis on the organizational network to generate a report and to develop policies based on the acquired results.
Which of the following tools will help him in analyzing network and its related traffic?
- A. FaceNiff
- B. Wireshark
- C. Whois
- D. Burp Suite
Answer: B
Explanation:
Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer that allows users to capture and interactively browse the traffic running on a computer network. It is a crucial tool for incident responders like Eric who are developing incident-handling plans and need to analyze network traffic and patterns. Wireshark can provide detailed information about the network, including protocols used, source and destination of packets, and potential signs of malicious activity, making it invaluable for developing informed policies and procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following is a term that describes the combination of strategies and services intended to restore data, applications, and other resources to the public cloud or dedicated service providers?
- A. Analysis
- B. Mitigation
- C. Eradication
- D. Cloud recovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
The term that describes the combination of strategies and services intended to restore data, applications, and other resources to the public cloud or dedicated service providers is "Cloud recovery." This term encompasses disaster recovery efforts focused on ensuring that an organization's digital assets can be quickly and effectively restored or moved to cloud environments in the event of data loss, system failure, or a disaster.
Cloud recovery strategies are part of a broader disaster recovery and business continuity planning, ensuring minimal downtime anddata loss by leveraging cloud computing's scalability and flexibility. Mitigation, analysis, and eradication are terms associated with other aspects of incident response and risk management, not specifically with the restoration of resources to cloud environments.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) curriculum includes discussions on disaster recovery and business continuity planning, highlighting cloud recovery as a vital component of ensuring organizational resilience against disruptions.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Miko was hired as an incident handler in XYZ company. His first task was to identify the PING sweep attempts inside the network. For this purpose, he used Wireshark to analyze the traffic. What filter did he use to identify ICMP ping sweep attempts?
- A. icmp.type == 8 or icmp.type ==0
- B. icrrip.lype == icmp
- C. udp.lype - 7
- D. tcp.typc == icmp
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Wireshark, to identify ICMP ping sweep attempts, the filtericmp.type == 8 or icmp.type ==0is used. This filter captures ICMP echo requests and echo replies, which are indicative of ping commands. Type 8 represents an echo request used when a source sends a ping, and type 0 represents an echo reply, which is the response from the target. By filtering for these ICMP types, Miko can detect a surge in ping requests across the network, which could indicate a ping sweep attempt-an exploratory activity often used by attackers to discover active hosts on a network by sending ping requests to multiple addresses.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides often incorporate training on using network analysis tools like Wireshark, including how to use filters to detect specific types of network activities and potential threats.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Jian is a member of the security team at Trinity, Inc. He was conducting a real-time assessment of system activities in order to acquire threat intelligence feeds. Heacquired feeds from sources like honeynets, P2P monitoring. infrastructure, and application logs.
Which of the following categories of threat intelligence feed was acquired by Jian?
- A. CSV data feeds
- B. External intelligence feeds
- C. Proactive surveillance feeds
- D. Internal intelligence feeds
Answer: D
Explanation:
Internal intelligence feeds are derived from data and information collected within an organization's own networks and systems. Jian's activities, such as real-time assessment of system activities and acquiring feeds from honeynets, P2P monitoring, infrastructure, and application logs, fall under the collection of internal intelligence feeds. These feeds are crucial for identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities within the organization and form a fundamental part of a comprehensive threat intelligence program. They contrast with external intelligence feeds, which are sourced from outside the organization and include information on broader cyber threats, trends, and TTPs of threat actors.References:
* "Building an Intelligence-Led Security Program" by Allan Liska
* "Threat Intelligence: Collecting, Analysing, Evaluating" by M-K. Lee, L. Healey, and P. A. Porras
NEW QUESTION # 81
Daniel is a professional hacker whose aim is to attack a system to steal data and money for profit. He performs hacking to obtain confidential data such as social security numbers, personally identifiable information (PII) of an employee, and credit card information. After obtaining confidential data, he further sells the information on the black market to make money.
Daniel comes under which of the following types of threat actor.
- A. Industrial spies
- B. Organized hackers
- C. Insider threat
- D. State-sponsored hackers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Daniel's activities align with those typically associated with organized hackers. Organized hackers or cybercriminals work in groups with the primary goal of financial gain through illegal activities such as stealing and selling data. These groups often target large amounts of data, including personal and financial information, which they can monetize by selling on the black market or dark web. Unlike industrial spies who focuson corporate espionage or state-sponsored hackers who are backed by nation-states for political or military objectives, organized hackers are motivated by profit. Insider threats, on the other hand, come from within the organization and might not always be motivated by financial gain. The actions described in the scenario-targeting personal and financial information for sale-best fit the modus operandi of organized cybercriminal groups.References:
* ENISA (European Union Agency for Cybersecurity) Threat Landscape Report
* Verizon Data Breach Investigations Report
NEW QUESTION # 82
Enrage Tech Company hired Enrique, a security analyst, for performing threat intelligence analysis. While performing data collection process, he used a counterintelligence mechanism where a recursive DNS server is employed to perform interserver DNS communication and when a request is generated from any name server to the recursive DNS server, the recursive DNS servers log the responses that are received. Then it replicates the logged data and stores the data in the central database. Using these logs, he analyzed the malicious attempts that took place over DNS infrastructure.
Which of the following cyber counterintelligence (CCI) gathering technique has Enrique used for data collection?
- A. Data collection through passive DNS monitoring
- B. Data collection through DNS zone transfer
- C. Data collection through dynamic DNS (DDNS)
- D. Data collection through DNS interrogation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Passive DNS monitoring involves collecting data about DNS queries and responses without actively querying DNS servers, thereby not altering or interfering with DNS traffic. This technique allows analysts to track changes in DNS records and observe patterns that may indicate malicious activity. In the scenario described, Enrique is employing passive DNS monitoring by using a recursive DNS server to log the responses received from name servers, storing these logs in a central database for analysis. This approach is effective for identifying malicious domains, mapping malware campaigns, and understanding threat actors' infrastructure without alerting them to the fact that they are being monitored. This method is distinct from active techniques such as DNS interrogation or zone transfers, which involve sending queries to DNS servers, and dynamic DNS, which refers to the automatic updating of DNS records.References:
* SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room, "Using Passive DNS to Enhance Cyber Threat Intelligence"
* "Passive DNS Replication," by Florian Weimer, FIRST Conference Presentation
NEW QUESTION # 83
Ren is assigned to handle a security incident of an organization. He is tasked with forensics investigation to find the evidence needed by the management. Which of the following steps falls under the investigation phase of the computer forensics investigation process?
- A. Risk assessment
- B. Setup a computer forensics lab
- C. Evidence assessment
- D. Secure the evidence
Answer: C
Explanation:
Evidence assessment is a critical step in the investigation phase of the computer forensics process. This step involves evaluating the evidence collected to determine its relevance and significance to the case at hand. It includes analyzing the secured data to identify what information can be used as evidence, its integrity, and how it can be related to the security incident. This phase is pivotal as it helps in building a coherent understanding of the incident and in establishing facts that can be presented in management reports or legal proceedings.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) by EC-Council includes a comprehensive discussion on the computer forensics investigation process, detailing steps from securing evidence to analyzing and assessing it within the context of an investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 84
In which of the following forms of bulk data collection are large amounts of data first collected from multiple sources in multiple formats and then processed to achieve threat intelligence?
- A. Unstructured form
- B. Hybrid form
- C. Structured form
- D. Production form
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the context of bulk data collection for threat intelligence, data is often initially collected in an unstructured form from multiple sources and in various formats. This unstructured data includes information from blogs, news articles, threat reports, social media, and other sources that do not follow a specific structure or format.
The subsequent processing of this data involves organizing, structuring, and analyzing it to extract actionable threat intelligence. This phase is crucial for turning vast amounts of disparate data into coherent, useful insights for cybersecurity purposes.References:
* "The Role of Unstructured Data in Cyber Threat Intelligence," by Jason Trost, Anomali
* "Turning Unstructured Data into Cyber Threat Intelligence," by Giorgio Mosca, IEEE Xplore
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following options describes common characteristics of phishing emails?
- A. Urgency, threatening, or promising subject lines
- B. No BCC fields
- C. Written in French
- D. Sent from friends or colleagues
Answer: A
Explanation:
Phishing emails often share common characteristics designed to manipulate the recipient into taking immediate action. One of the hallmark features is the use of urgency, threatening language, or promising subject lines in the emails. These tactics are intended to create a sense of urgency or fear, compelling the recipient to respond quickly without giving due consideration to the legitimacy of the email. Phishing emails may claim that the recipient's account has been compromised, that they need to confirm personal information immediately, or that they have won a prize. The goal is to trick the recipient into clicking on malicious links, opening attachments, or providing sensitive information.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program by EC-Council covers the identification and handling of phishing incidents, including the analysis of phishing emails and the importance of educating users on recognizing and responding to phishing attempts.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Stanley works as an incident responder at a top MNC based out of Singapore. He was asked to investigate a cybersecurity incident that recently occurred in the company.
While investigating the crime, he collected the evidence from the victim systems. He must present this evidence in a clear and comprehensible manner to the members of jury so that the evidence explains the facts clearly and further helps in obtaining an expert opinion on the same to confirm the investigation process.
In the above scenario, what is the characteristic of the digital evidence Stanley tried to preserve?
- A. Admissible
- B. Complete
- C. Believable
- D. Authentic
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the scenario described, Stanley aims to ensure that the digital evidence he collected is admissible in court.
This means the evidence must be gathered, handled, and presented in a manner that complies with legal standards, ensuring it can be legally used in a trial. Admissibility is a crucial characteristic of digital evidence, as it must be relevant, authentic, and obtained without violating any laws or rights to privacy. The evidence must also be presented in a clear and comprehensible manner to be understood by the members of the jury, which further supports its admissibility in court.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials cover the legal aspects of handling digital evidence, including the principles ensuring evidence is admissible in court.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Michael is a part of the computer incident response team of a company. One of his responsibilities is to handle email incidents. The company receives an email from an unknown source, and one of the steps that he needs to take is to check the validity of the email. Which of the following tools should he use?
- A. Zendio
- B. Email Dossier
- C. Yesware
- D. G Suite Toolbox
Answer: B
Explanation:
Email Dossier is a tool designed to assist in the investigation of email incidents by analyzing and validating email headers and providing detailed information about the origin, routing, and authenticity of an email.
When Michael is tasked with handling an email incident and needs to check the validity of an email received from an unknown source, Email Dossier can be utilized to trace the email's path, assess its credibility, and identify potential red flags associated with phishing or other malicious email-based attacks.
References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum emphasizes the importance of tools and techniques for email incident handling, including the use of Email Dossier for investigating suspicious emails and aiding in the response to email-based threats.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Alison, an analyst in an XYZ organization, wants to retrieve information about a company's website from the time of its inception as well as the removed information from the target website.
What should Alison do to get the information he needs.
- A. Alison should run the Web Data Extractor tool to extract the required website information.
- B. Alison should use https://archive.org to extract the required website information.
- C. Alison should use SmartWhois to extract the required website information.
- D. Alison should recover cached pages of the website from the Google search engine cache to extract the required website information.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To retrieve historical information about a company's website, including content that may have been removed or altered, Alison should use the Internet Archive's Wayback Machine, accessible athttps://archive.org. The Wayback Machine is a digital archive of the World Wide Web and other information on the Internet, providing free access to snapshots of websites at various points in time. This tool is invaluable for researchers and analysts looking to understand the evolution of a website or recover lost information.References:
* "Using the Wayback Machine for Cybersecurity Research," Internet Archive Blogs
* "Digital Forensics with the Archive's Wayback Machine," by Jeff Kaplan, Internet Archive
NEW QUESTION # 89
Lizzy, an analyst, wants to recognize the level of risks to the organization so as to plan countermeasures against cyber attacks. She used a threat modelling methodology where she performed the following stages:
Stage 1: Build asset-based threat profiles
Stage 2: Identify infrastructure vulnerabilities
Stage 3: Develop security strategy and plans
Which of the following threat modelling methodologies was used by Lizzy in the aforementioned scenario?
- A. DREAD
- B. VAST
- C. OCTAVE
- D. TRIKE
Answer: C
Explanation:
The threat modeling methodology employed by Lizzy, which involves building asset-based threat profiles, identifying infrastructure vulnerabilities, and developing security strategies and plans, aligns with the OCTAVE (Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation) methodology. OCTAVE focuses on organizational risk and security practices, emphasizing self-directed risk assessments to identify and prioritize threats to organizational assets and develop appropriate security strategies and plans. This methodology is asset-driven and revolves around understanding critical assets, identifying threats to those assets, and assessing vulnerabilities, leading to the development of a comprehensive security strategy.
References:
* The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices by Julia H. Allen
* "OCTAVE Method Implementation Guide Version 2.0," Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 90
A US Federal Agency network was the target of a DoS attack that prevented and impaired the normal authorized functionality of the networks. According to agency's reporting timeframe guidelines, this incident should be reported within 2 h of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and the agency is unable to successfully mitigate the activity.
Which incident category of US Federal Agency does this incident belong to?
- A. CAT 1
- B. CAT 6
- C. CAT 2
- D. CAT 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of US Federal Agencies, incidents are categorized based on their impact on operations, assets, or individuals. A DoS attack that prevents or impairs the authorized functionality of networks and is still ongoing without successful mitigation efforts typically falls under Category 2 (CAT 2). This category is designated for incidents that have a significant impact, requiring immediate reporting and response. The reporting timeframe of within 2 hours as mentioned aligns with the urgency associated with CAT 2 incidents, emphasizing the need for swift action to address the attack and restore normal operations.References:US Federal incident response guidelines and the Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA)courses outline the categorization of cybersecurity incidents, detailing the response protocols for each category, including the reporting timeframes.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following is a technique used by attackers to make a message difficult to understand through the use of ambiguous language?
- A. Spoofing
- B. Obfuscation
- C. Encryption
- D. Steganography
Answer: B
Explanation:
Obfuscation is a technique used to make data or code difficult to understand. It is often employed by attackers to conceal the true intent of their code or communications, making it harder for security professionals, automated tools, and others to analyze or detect malicious activity. Obfuscation can involve the use of ambiguous or misleading language, as well as more technical methods such as encoding, encryption, or the use of nonsensical variable names in source code to hide its true functionality.
References:The CREST CPTIA program discusses various techniques attackers use to evade detection, including obfuscation, highlighting how it complicates the analysis and understanding of malicious payloads.
NEW QUESTION # 92
An attack on a network is BEST blocked using which of the following?
- A. HIPS
- B. Load balancer
- C. IPS device inline
- D. Web proxy
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) device placed inline is best suited to block attacks on a network actively. Being inline allows the IPS to analyze and take action on the traffic as it passes through the device, effectively preventing malicious traffic from reaching its target. The IPS can detect and block a wide range of attacks in real-time by using various detection methods, such as signature-based detection, anomaly detection, and policy-based detection. Unlike Host-based Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS), web proxies, or load balancers, an inline IPS is specifically designed to inspect and act on incoming and outgoing network traffic to prevent attacks before they reach network devices or applications.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials discuss network security controls and emphasize the role of intrusion prevention systems in protecting networks against threats.
NEW QUESTION # 93
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