2024 100% Free CRISC Daily Practice Exam With 1196 Questions [Q237-Q257]

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2024 100% Free CRISC Daily Practice Exam With 1196 Questions

CRISC exam torrent ISACA study guide


The CRISC certification exam is a challenging but rewarding experience for IT professionals who want to demonstrate their knowledge and expertise in IT risk management and information systems control. By passing the exam and earning the certification, professionals can boost their career prospects and demonstrate their commitment to excellence in the field of IT risk management.


The CRISC certification is highly regarded in the IT industry, and it is a valuable credential to have for professionals who are looking to advance their careers in risk management and information security. CRISC exam is designed to test an individual's knowledge, skills, and abilities related to risk management, control monitoring, and reporting. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification provides a competitive edge to professionals who are seeking job opportunities in IT risk management.

 

NEW QUESTION # 237
A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

  • A. Customer database manager
  • B. Data privacy officer
  • C. Audit committee
  • D. Customer data custodian

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 238
Which of the following is the MOST relevant input to an organization's risk profile?

  • A. Internal audit's risk assessment
  • B. Management's risk self-assessment
  • C. Information security's vulnerability assessment
  • D. External audit's risk assessment

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume D


NEW QUESTION # 239
Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

  • A. Testing control design
  • B. Establishing the risk register
  • C. Accepting residual risk
  • D. Establishing business information criteria

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 240
Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

  • A. Risk appetite
  • B. Risk tolerance
  • C. Threat type
  • D. Residual risk

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D


NEW QUESTION # 241
You are the project manager for the NHH project. You are working with your project team to examine the project from four different defined perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks. What risk identification approach are you using in this example?

  • A. SWOT analysis
  • B. Assumptions analysis
  • C. Explanation:
    This is an example of SWOT analysis. SWOT analysis examines the strengths, weaknesses,
    opportunities, and threats within the project and generated from within the organization.
    SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. It is a part of business
    policy that helps an individual or a company to make decisions. It includes the strategies to build
    the strength of a company and use the opportunities to make the company successful. It also
    includes the strategies to overcome the weaknesses of and threats to the company.
  • D. is incorrect. Root cause analysis examines causal factors for events within the project.
  • E. is incorrect. Assumptions analysis does not use four pre-defined perspectives for
    review.
  • F. Root cause analysis
  • G. Influence diagramming techniques

Answer: A

Explanation:
is incorrect. Influence diagramming techniques examines the relationships between
things and events within the project.


NEW QUESTION # 242
Which of the following guidelines should be followed for effective risk management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

  • A. Promote fair and open communication
  • B. Focus on enterprise's objective
  • C. Balance the costs and benefits of managing risk
  • D. Promote and support consistent performance in risk management

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The primary function of the enterprise is to meet its objective. Each business activity for fulfilling enterprise's objective carries both risk and opportunity, therefore objective should be considered while managing risk.
Open and fair communication should me there for effective risk management. Open, accurate, timely and transparent information on lT risk is exchanged and serves as the basis for all risk-related decisions.
Cost-benefit analysis should be done for proper weighing the total costs expected against the total benefits expected, which is the major aspect of risk management.
Incorrect Answers:
A: For effective risk management, there should be continuous improvement, not consistent. Because of the dynamic nature of risk, risk management is an iterative, perpetual and ongoing process; that's why, continuous improvement is required.


NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

  • A. Promotion of a risk-aware culture
  • B. Facilitation of risk-aware decision making
  • C. Alignment of business activities
  • D. Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 244
A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

  • A. is more objective than risk management
  • B. better understands the system architecture
  • C. can balance technical and business risk
  • D. can make better informed business decisions

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 245
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

  • A. Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response
  • B. Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed
  • C. Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined
  • D. Percentage of business users completing risk training

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 246
The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

  • A. Vulnerability assessment reports
  • B. Penetration test reports
  • C. Logs and system events
  • D. Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 247
Which of the following will be MOST effective to mitigate the risk associated with the loss of company data stored on personal devices?

  • A. Required user log-on before synchronizing data
  • B. An acceptable use policy for personal devices
  • C. Enforced authentication and data encryption
  • D. Security awareness training and testing

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 248
Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

  • A. Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure
  • B. Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents
  • C. Enforcing change and configuration management processes
  • D. Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 249
Which of the following establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc?

  • A. Explanation:
    Standard establishes mandatory rules, specifications and metrics used to measure compliance against quality, value, etc. Standards are usually intended for compliance purposes and to provide assurance to others who interact with a process or outputs of a process.
  • B. Standard
  • C. Framework
  • D. Legal requirements
  • E. Practices

Answer: B

Explanation:
is incorrect. Frameworks are generally accepted, business-process-oriented structures that establish a common language and enable repeatable business processes. Answer:D is incorrect. Practices are frequent or usual actions performed as an application of knowledge. A leading practice would be defined as an action that optimally applies knowledge in a particular area. They are issued by a "recognized authority" that is appropriate to the subject matter. issuing bodies may include professional associations and academic institutions or commercial entities such as software vendors. They are generally based on a combination of research, expert insight and peer review. Answer:B is incorrect. These are legal rules underneath which project has to be.


NEW QUESTION # 250
What is the FIRST phase of IS monitoring and maintenance process?

  • A. Report result
  • B. Implement monitoring
  • C. Prioritizing risks
  • D. Identifying controls

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Following are the phases that are involved in Information system monitoring and maintenance:
Prioritize risk: The first phase involves the prioritization of risk which in turn involves following task:

- Analyze and prioritize risks to organizational objectives.
- Identify the necessary application components and flow of information through the system.
- Examine and understand the functionality of the application by reviewing the application system documentation and interviewing appropriate personnel.
Identify controls: After prioritizing risk now the controls are identified, and this involves following tasks:

- Key controls are identified across the internal control system that addresses the prioritized risk.
- Applications control strength is identified.
- Impact of the control weaknesses is being evaluated.
- Testing strategy is developed by analyzing the accumulated information.
Identify information: Now the IS control information should be identified:

- Identify information that will persuasively indicate the operating effectiveness of the internal control system.
- Observe and test user performing procedures.
Implement monitoring: Develop and implement cost-effective procedures to evaluate the persuasive

information.
Report results: After implementing monitoring process the results are being reported to relevant

stakeholders.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These all phases occur in IS monitoring and maintenance process after prioritizing risks.


NEW QUESTION # 251
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have identified new threats, and then evaluated the ability of existing controls to mitigate risk associated with new threats. You noticed that the existing control is not efficient in mitigating these new risks. What are the various steps you could take in this case?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

  • A. Modify of the technical architecture
  • B. Apply more controls
  • C. Deployment of a threat-specific countermeasure
  • D. Explanation:
    As new threats are identified and prioritized in terms of impact, the first step is to evaluate the ability of existing controls to mitigate risk associated with new threats and if it does not work then in that case facilitate the: Modification of the technical architecture Deployment of a threat-specific countermeasure Implementation of a compensating mechanism or process until mitigating controls are developed Education of staff or business partners
  • E. Education of staff or business partners

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
is incorrect. Applying more controls is not the good solution. They usually complicate the condition.


NEW QUESTION # 252
The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

  • A. quantify the organization's risk appetite
  • B. build a risk profile for management review
  • C. ensure business unit risk uniformly distributed
  • D. implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume D


NEW QUESTION # 253
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have planned the risk response process and now you are about to implement various controls. What you should do before relying on any of the controls?

  • A. Discover risk exposure
  • B. Articulate risk
  • C. Conduct pilot testing
  • D. Review performance data

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Pilot testing and reviewing of performance data to verify operation against design are done before relying on control.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Discovering risk exposure helps in identifying the severity of risk, but it does not play any role in specifying the reliability of control.
D: Articulating risk is the first phase in the risk response process to ensure that information on the true state of exposures and opportunities are made available in a timely manner and to the right people for appropriate response. But it does not play any role in identifying whether any specific control is reliable or not.


NEW QUESTION # 254
When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

  • A. that result in a full root cause analysis.
  • B. used for verification within the SLA.
  • C. resolved within the SLA.
  • D. that are verified as actual incidents.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 255
You are the risk control professional of your enterprise. You have implemented a tool that correlates information from multiple sources. To which of the following do this monitoring tool focuses?

  • A. System changes
  • B. Configuration settings
  • C. Transaction data
  • D. Process integrity

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Monitoring tools that focuses on transaction data generally correlate information from one system to another, such as employee data from the human resources (HR) system with spending information from the expense system or the payroll system.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Process integrity is confirmed within the system, it does not need monitoring.
C: Configuration settings are generally compared against predefined values and not based on the correlation between multiple sources.
D: System changes are compared from a previous state to the current state, it does not correlate information from multiple sources.


NEW QUESTION # 256
Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?

  • A. A documented communications plan
  • B. Network time protocol synchronization
  • C. Identification of attack sources
  • D. Early detection of breaches

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 257
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