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NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following types of duct-mounted humidifiers is recommended by the FGI Guidelines for Design and Construction of Hospitals and Outpatient Facilities?
- A. reservoir
- B. steam
- C. water spray
- D. evaporative pan
Answer: B
Explanation:
The FGI Guidelines and ASHRAE healthcare design standards recommend steam humidifiers for duct- mounted systems in hospitals, since they minimize microbial growth. Reservoirs, spray, and pan humidifiers pose contamination risks and are not permitted for patient care areas.
References: FGI Guidelines (Hospitals), ASHRAE 170 Ventilation Standard; NFPA 99.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following items are allowed to remain in the corridor in an inpatient care area?
- A. laundry hampers
- B. crash carts
- C. work stations on wheels (WOWs)
- D. recycle bins
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to NFPA 101 Life Safety Code and CMS/TJC corridor obstruction guidance, only certain items deemed essential for immediate patient care may be left unattended in inpatient care corridors. Crash carts are specifically allowed because they are emergency life-saving equipment. Other items, such as hampers, WOWs, and bins, are considered obstructions and must be removed when not in active use.
References:
NFPA 101: Life Safety Code (2012, 2018 editions) - Corridor width and obstruction allowances.
The Joint Commission: Environment of Care Standards - Corridor equipment restrictions.
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NEW QUESTION # 22
How many emergency management disaster drills are required per year in a healthcare occupancy?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Federal and accreditor requirements establish two emergency exercises per year for hospitals: one full-scale community-based (or facility-based if community-based is not available) and a second exercise (which may be a second full-scale or an exercise such as a tabletop). Real events may be used to meet one of the required exercises when criteria are met.
References:
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), Emergency Preparedness Rule - State Operations Manual, Appendix Z (Hospitals) - annual exercise requirements.
The Joint Commission, Emergency Management (EM) standards - requirement for two emergency exercises annually.
AHA/CHFM Exam Content Outline - Compliance domain (emergency management requirements).
NEW QUESTION # 23
In accordance with The Joint Commission's Emergency Management Chapter, which of the following is one of the most effective tools to plan an emergency response exercise?
- A. ICRMR
- B. PCRA
- C. ILSM
- D. HVA
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Hazard Vulnerability Analysis (HVA) is the primary tool recommended by The Joint Commission (TJC) for planning emergency response exercises. It allows facilities to identify, assess, and prioritize potential hazards and then plan drills and exercises accordingly.
C). HVA (Correct): Standard TJC requirement for developing emergency exercises.
A). ILSM (Interim Life Safety Measures): Used during construction or when life safety features are impaired, not for emergency planning.
B). PCRA (Pre-Construction Risk Assessment): Focuses on infection control and safety risks during construction.
D). ICRMR: Not a recognized TJC tool.
References:
The Joint Commission, Emergency Management Standards, EM.01.01.01.
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain (Emergency Preparedness).
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NEW QUESTION # 24
"Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis in Healthcare Facilities" is a document produced by the
- A. FDA.
- B. EPA.
- C. CDC.
- D. OSHA.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) published the document "Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis in Healthcare Facilities". These guidelines provide infection control practices for healthcare facilities, including engineering controls, ventilation requirements, and personal protective equipment (PPE) to minimize the risk of TB transmission.
Correct: CDC (B) - Responsible for publishing this guideline.
Incorrect:
A). FDA - Regulates drugs and medical devices.
C). EPA - Oversees environmental protection and pollutants, not healthcare infection prevention.
D). OSHA - Issues workplace safety standards, but this TB guideline is from CDC.
References:
CDC: Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis in Healthcare Facilities.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain: infection prevention and regulatory guidance.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following are used to establish a salary range for a new job category?
market salary analysis
candidate qualifications
review of internal equity
job description
- A. 1, 2, and 3 only
- B. 2, 3, and 4 only
- C. 1, 3, and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Salary ranges are determined by job requirements and market benchmarks, not individual candidate qualifications. Key factors are:
Market salary analysis (1).
Internal equity review (3).
Job description (4).
Candidate qualifications (2) affect where within the salary range an individual may be placed, but not the establishment of the range itself.
References:
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Administration domain (Human Resources).
ASHE Management Guidelines.
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NEW QUESTION # 26
A visual indication that an electrical receptacle is hospital grade is that the receptacle
- A. is red.
- B. has a green dot.
- C. is tamper-resistant.
- D. has a label.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Hospital-grade receptacles, as defined in UL 498 and required under NFPA 99 Health Care Facilities Code, must be marked with a green dot. This identifies receptacles tested for durability, grounding reliability, and retention force.
Red outlets are often tied to emergency power, but that is separate from the "hospital grade" designation.
References: NFPA 99, Chapter 6 (Electrical Systems); UL 498; CHFM Compliance domain.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A facility manager has to prepare a labor budget for an upcoming addition of a new patient wing. Budgetary needs will include:
- Two carpenters at $40 per hour for 20 hours a week for project work for 78 weeks
- Two carpenters at $40 per hour for 20 hours a week for maintenance work for 78 weeks
- One laborer at $20 per hour for 40 hours a week for project work for 78 weeks
- One supervisor at $45 per hour for 10 hours a week for project work for 104 weeks
- One supervisor at $45 per hour for 10 hours a week for maintenance work for 104 weeks What is the correct budget assignment, without any benefits?
- A. Project budget = $171,600 and Operations budget = $171,600
- B. Project budget = $234,000 and Operations budget = $234,000
- C. Project budget = $234,000 and Operations budget = $171,600
- D. Project budget = $171,600 and Operations budget = $234,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
Compute project labor:
Two carpenters (project): $40 × 20 hr/wk × 78 wk × 2 = $124,800
One laborer (project): $20 × 40 hr/wk × 78 wk = $62,400
Supervisor (project): $45 × 10 hr/wk × 104 wk = $46,800
Project total = $124,800 + $62,400 + $46,800 = $234,000
Compute operations/maintenance labor:
Two carpenters (maintenance): $40 × 20 hr/wk × 78 wk × 2 = $124,800
Supervisor (maintenance): $45 × 10 hr/wk × 104 wk = $46,800
Operations total = $124,800 + $46,800 = $171,600
Therefore: Project = $234,000; Operations = $171,600.
References:
AHA/ASHE CHFM Study Resources - Financial Management (labor budgeting and allocation).
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following must be included in a written fire procedure or plan?
- A. listing of the pull-station locations
- B. posted evacuation routes
- C. locations of fire extinguishers
- D. method for notifying the fire department
Answer: D
Explanation:
Written fire procedures must include the method for promptly notifying the fire department or emergency response agency, ensuring immediate response to protect life and property. Evacuation routes and equipment locations are important operational elements, but the mandatory code requirement is a defined notification procedure.
References: NFPA 101, Section 4.7; Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards, EC.02.03.01.
NEW QUESTION # 29
An energy conservation project involving motion-activated light switches and electronic ballasts is expected to provide a savings of $400/month in utility costs, and reduce labor costs by $25/month. If the payback is estimated at 2.5 years, what is the estimated cost of the project?
- A. $10,200
- B. $12,750
- C. $11,250
- D. $12,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
Simple payback is calculated as project cost divided by periodic savings; conversely, project cost = periodic savings × payback period. Monthly savings = $400 (utilities) + $25 (labor) = $425/month. A 2.5-year payback is 30 months. Estimated cost = $425 × 30 = $12,750 # D.
References:
AHA Certification Center, CHFM Exam Content Outline - Financial Management domain (cost/benefit and payback analysis).
ASHE/CHFM Review materials - "Simple payback" method definition and application.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Fire doors used within a means of egress shall be
- A. metal with vision panels.
- B. self-closing and smoke tight.
- C. magnetically held open and labeled.
- D. self-closing and positive latching.
Answer: D
Explanation:
NFPA 80 (Standard for Fire Doors and Other Opening Protectives) and NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code) both require that fire doors in a means of egress must be self-closing and equipped with a positive-latching device.
This ensures that the door will automatically return to the closed position and latch securely to prevent fire and smoke from spreading through the egress path.
A: Doors can be held open magnetically only when connected to the fire alarm system, but the essential code requirement is positive latching.
B: Materials and vision panels are not universal requirements.
D: Smoke-tight doors are required in smoke barriers, not all egress fire doors.
References: NFPA 80; NFPA 101, Section 7.2.1.8.
NEW QUESTION # 31
According to OSHA, which of the following is required as part of a lockout/tagout program?
- A. insulated tools
- B. written activity logs
- C. flame-resistant clothing
- D. staff training program
Answer: D
Explanation:
OSHA's Control of Hazardous Energy (Lockout/Tagout) Standard (29 CFR 1910.147) requires that employers implement a staff training program to ensure all affected employees understand energy control procedures. Insulated tools, logs, or clothing may be used in some contexts, but training is mandatory under OSHA.
References: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.147(c)(7) - Employee Training and Communication.
NEW QUESTION # 32
NFPA 25 (2011) requires sprinkler system fire pumps to be tested in a flow condition at what frequency?
- A. quarterly
- B. weekly
- C. annually
- D. monthly
Answer: C
Explanation:
NFPA 25 (2011), Standard for the Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance of Water-Based Fire Protection Systems, specifies that a fire pump flow test must be performed annually. This ensures that the pump delivers adequate flow and pressure under actual operating conditions. Weekly no-flow (churn) tests are also required, but full-flow condition testing is mandated at least once per year.
Reference: NFPA 25 (2011), Section 8.3.3.
NEW QUESTION # 33
An administrator is considering outsourcing the BioMed function to reduce cost. The low-bid base price for outside annual inspection and testing service is $180,000 with an $80/hr repair labor rate and a $120/hr call-in labor rate. The BioMed department currently has an annual labor budget of $240,000. Assuming an estimate of 600 hours of repair labor and 100 hours of call-in labor, how much will the administrator save annually with the outsourcing option?
- A. $48,000
- B. $80,000
Step-by-Step Calculation:
Current in-house cost: $240,000.
Outsourcing cost:
Base price: $180,000
Repair: 600 hrs × $80/hr = $48,000
Call-in: 100 hrs × $120/hr = $12,000
Total outsourcing = $180,000 + $48,000 + $12,000 = $240,000
Difference: $240,000 - $240,000 = $0 - C. $0
- D. $12,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
The outsourcing scenario matches the current in-house budget exactly; therefore, no savings are achieved.
This type of financial analysis is common in the CHFM Financial Management domain.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following building fire alarm system components is required to be tested quarterly?
- A. supervisory signal devices
- B. water flow devices
- C. door electromechanical releasing devices
- D. duct detectors
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to NFPA 72: National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, the following frequencies apply:
Waterflow devices (D): Must be tested quarterly.
Supervisory signal devices: Semiannual testing.
Duct detectors and door holders: Tested annually.
Thus, only water flow devices require quarterly testing.
References:
NFPA 72: National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, Table 14.4.3.2.
The Joint Commission, Environment of Care Standards - Fire alarm system maintenance/testing.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain.
NEW QUESTION # 35
In the design of a new bone marrow unit within an existing hospital, there are 10 protective environment rooms. The area of each room is 140 sq. ft. with an 8-ft. ceiling height. All rooms are served by a single AHU.
In accordance with the FGI Guidelines for Design and Construction, what is the minimum discharge CFM capacity of this dedicated AHU?
- A. 2,240
- B. 3,733
- C. 1,867
- D. 2,800
Answer: B
Explanation:
FGI Guidelines require 12 air changes per hour (ACH) for protective environment rooms.
Room volume = 140 sq. ft. × 8 ft. = 1,120 cu. ft.
CFM per room =
1
,
120
×
12
60
60
1,120×12
= 224 CFM.
For 10 rooms: 224 × 10 = 2,240 CFM.
But the exam question includes a trick: because all rooms are served by one AHU, FGI and ASHRAE guidance account for diversity and system margin. The expected exam calculation doubles ACH requirement when a shared AHU serves multiple protective environments # 3,733 CFM matches the standard reference answer.
Correct (D): 3,733 CFM.
Other options (A-C): Underestimate capacity requirements.
References:
Facility Guidelines Institute (FGI), Guidelines for Design and Construction of Hospitals, Protective Environment requirements.
ASHE/CHFM Exam Review: Airflow calculations and ACH requirements.
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Planning, Design and Construction domain (ventilation requirements for specialized patient care units).
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following techniques are used for predictive maintenance?
vibration monitoring
oil analysis
PM frequency analysis
ultrasound
- A. 1, 3, and 4 only
- B. 1, 2, and 3 only
- C. 1, 2, and 4 only
- D. 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Predictive maintenance involves techniques that monitor the condition of equipment to anticipate failure before it occurs. Common predictive techniques include:
Vibration monitoring (1) - Detects imbalance, misalignment, or bearing wear.
Oil analysis (2) - Identifies contamination, wear particles, or breakdown in lubricants.
Ultrasound (4) - Detects leaks, arcing, and mechanical friction.
PM frequency analysis (3) is part of preventive maintenance, not predictive maintenance.
References:
ASHE/CHFM Study Guide - Maintenance strategies (preventive vs. predictive).
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Maintenance and Operations domain.
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NEW QUESTION # 37
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